Wednesday, 21 December 2016
MOHFW Recruitment 2016 | Apply Online for 372 CGHS Staff Nurse Vacancy | Jaggy
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Gulf Nurse Interview Questions & Answer & videos help
Interview
Questions and Answers
Questions and Answers
1. Tell me about
yourself?
Answer: This surely is the number 1 Gulf Interview Questions and Answers, that candidates from across the world come across. It's the same in Dubai / Gulf countries. Talking about 'things not related to work' is a big NO-NO.
My advice to you is to prepare this answer before hand. Talk about some responsibility that you enjoy doing, especially one that is related to the job position you are interviewing for.
Answer: This surely is the number 1 Gulf Interview Questions and Answers, that candidates from across the world come across. It's the same in Dubai / Gulf countries. Talking about 'things not related to work' is a big NO-NO.
My advice to you is to prepare this answer before hand. Talk about some responsibility that you enjoy doing, especially one that is related to the job position you are interviewing for.
2. Why did you leave
your last job?
Answer: This might be one of the most tricky Gulf Interview Questions and Answers. Always answer in the positive. Never ever give answers that will show you in a bad light. If you've had problems with your manager, or a colleague etc.
DO NOT say that. Instead say that you wanted a challenge in life, a better opportunity etc.
Answer: This might be one of the most tricky Gulf Interview Questions and Answers. Always answer in the positive. Never ever give answers that will show you in a bad light. If you've had problems with your manager, or a colleague etc.
DO NOT say that. Instead say that you wanted a challenge in life, a better opportunity etc.
3. Are you applying for other
jobs?
Answer:
Answer:
Honesty pays great
rewards. If you have applied for similar jobs with competitor organizations,
then say so. But do not divulge too much detail. Also, if you've applied for
different types of jobs, then it's advisable to keep quiet.
4. Why do you want to
work for this organization?
Answer: This is another tricky one. Research about the organization before you go for the interview. This will give you some idea about how you could fit into the bigger picture. Be honest & sincere. Talk about your long term goals and how the work that you do here will help you achieve them.
5. What is your Expected
Salary?
Answer: This one from the set of Gulf Interview Questions and Answers is where most people fumble. It's advisable to not blurt out a figure. Instead, say that the salary package depends upon what exactly this job entails.
Answer: This one from the set of Gulf Interview Questions and Answers is where most people fumble. It's advisable to not blurt out a figure. Instead, say that the salary package depends upon what exactly this job entails.
Then ask the interviewer what salary range the company has, for this job position. If the interviewer quotes a salary range, that's good, and if he does not, you've already answered your part.
6, What are your strengths
and weaknesses?
"What is your greatest strength?" is again a very common question and so is one about a candidate’s weaknesses.
To answer the first one, talk about your professional attributes that should push you closer to the job.
For example, you can say that you are very meticulous and believe in planning much in advance and prefer to finish tasks well ahead of schedule rather than trying to meet deadlines. This is also the time to boast about your management and organisation skills and highlight the habit of setting targets for yourself and then taking pride in exceeding them.
You can also say that you do not work by the clock and can focus and devote time to a project at any time of the day, if need be. You can also focus on how you’ve been getting good performance bonuses every year because of your outstanding achievements in exceeding the sales targets or in getting new clients or business for the company.
On the weaknesses bit, you have to be tactful and smart. You can focus on points that aren't critical for the job, or the weaknesses that you have worked on and turned into your strengths.
7. Why do you want this job?
Whatever your reasons may be for this but you should tell the interview what he wants to hear. You can’t complain about your current dead-end job, salary or boss woes. Your potential employer does not want you to bad mouth your current one but wants to know about the good things that you believe can happen if you were hired.
So, focus on how the new company can help you grow professionally and the ways you can add value to the team and the business. You can talk about the challenges that the new workplace has to offer and your passion and ability to live up to them.
You can tell the employer that his company is fast growing and you want to grow with it. This is especially true if you want to work with a start-up. You have to be prepared to convince the employer that this is the kind of challenging role that you look forward to and the office that you would love to come to each morning.
8. Why should we hire you?
You’ve spoken about your interests, strengths and weakness, now the employer wants you to give him reasons why s/he should hire you. They know that you can do the job and that’s why you have been shortlisted for the interview rounds but what s/he wants to know is what makes you the best fit for the position?
This is the time to market yourself so don’t be shy but do not come out as over confident. List all your skills and accomplishments that put you as the best candidate for the job - for example, you are a leader who can get the team together to turn a loss making venture into a profitable one.
Tell them you are the employee who has won rewards in client servicing or the list of clients who wish to deal with you.
You have to focus and highlight your uniqueness for the job and that could be qualities you possess, strong business acumen, problem solving skills or the ability to effectively manage a team etc.
9.What is your salary expectation?
Employers want to know your current pay cheque because they want to size you up. A tentative figure will give them an idea of how much you would be willing to negotiate. In your best interest, it is advisable that you avoid answering your current salary question in the beginning.
Be smart in telling them you’d be happy to talk about money at a later stage or that under your current employment conditions you are not permitted to discuss your salary and financial incentives w Question 10.Why do you want to work in the healthcare sector?
"What is your greatest strength?" is again a very common question and so is one about a candidate’s weaknesses.
To answer the first one, talk about your professional attributes that should push you closer to the job.
For example, you can say that you are very meticulous and believe in planning much in advance and prefer to finish tasks well ahead of schedule rather than trying to meet deadlines. This is also the time to boast about your management and organisation skills and highlight the habit of setting targets for yourself and then taking pride in exceeding them.
You can also say that you do not work by the clock and can focus and devote time to a project at any time of the day, if need be. You can also focus on how you’ve been getting good performance bonuses every year because of your outstanding achievements in exceeding the sales targets or in getting new clients or business for the company.
On the weaknesses bit, you have to be tactful and smart. You can focus on points that aren't critical for the job, or the weaknesses that you have worked on and turned into your strengths.
7. Why do you want this job?
Whatever your reasons may be for this but you should tell the interview what he wants to hear. You can’t complain about your current dead-end job, salary or boss woes. Your potential employer does not want you to bad mouth your current one but wants to know about the good things that you believe can happen if you were hired.
So, focus on how the new company can help you grow professionally and the ways you can add value to the team and the business. You can talk about the challenges that the new workplace has to offer and your passion and ability to live up to them.
You can tell the employer that his company is fast growing and you want to grow with it. This is especially true if you want to work with a start-up. You have to be prepared to convince the employer that this is the kind of challenging role that you look forward to and the office that you would love to come to each morning.
8. Why should we hire you?
You’ve spoken about your interests, strengths and weakness, now the employer wants you to give him reasons why s/he should hire you. They know that you can do the job and that’s why you have been shortlisted for the interview rounds but what s/he wants to know is what makes you the best fit for the position?
This is the time to market yourself so don’t be shy but do not come out as over confident. List all your skills and accomplishments that put you as the best candidate for the job - for example, you are a leader who can get the team together to turn a loss making venture into a profitable one.
Tell them you are the employee who has won rewards in client servicing or the list of clients who wish to deal with you.
You have to focus and highlight your uniqueness for the job and that could be qualities you possess, strong business acumen, problem solving skills or the ability to effectively manage a team etc.
9.What is your salary expectation?
Employers want to know your current pay cheque because they want to size you up. A tentative figure will give them an idea of how much you would be willing to negotiate. In your best interest, it is advisable that you avoid answering your current salary question in the beginning.
Be smart in telling them you’d be happy to talk about money at a later stage or that under your current employment conditions you are not permitted to discuss your salary and financial incentives w Question 10.Why do you want to work in the healthcare sector?
A person, who decides to become a nurse, has some different
reasons other than earning money, to enter this field. This question gives you
a chance to express your desire to help out individuals and how important human
life is for you.
Sample Answer: I believe that with this profession, I
can make a difference, and make people feel better. Seeing so many people in
pain and misery motivated me to practice nursing.
.11. Why
are you leaving your current job?
Instead of criticizing your previous job, pinpoint the positive
aspects. Never give a negative reason for leaving, stay away from bad mouthing
your employer or colleagues. Focus on the opportunities that will come with the
new job.
Sample Answer: My previous job taught me so many things
and developed necessary qualities required to be a proficient nurse. But now,
there is no room for growth, and I am looking forward for new challenges to
thrive in nursing.
12. Discuss your biggest strengths and
weaknesses.
The interviewer wants to check your strengths in order to match
them with the job requirements. Prepare a list of three or more strengths, such
as your leadership qualities, optimistic approach, interpersonal skills, that
can be a treasure for the organization. Be very honest about your weakness,
discuss them and mention the measures for improving them.
Sample Answer: I have outstanding leadership qualities
and interpersonal skills, which help me to coordinate well with my colleagues.
I do not quit easily, until the work is done in a proper manner;
it’s my major weakness.
13.: What measures have you taken to upgrade
your knowledge?
If you have attended any seminar or pursued a degree for the
sake of enhancing your knowledge and competency in working, mention them.
Sample Answer: I enrolled myself in an advanced course
for improving my managerial skills and also attended various seminars for
enhancing interpersonal skills.
14. Describe your former supervisor.
14. Describe your former supervisor.
Don’t commit the mistake of criticizing your former supervisor,
stay positive and state what you have learned from him.
Sample Answer: Kevin was a competent supervisor with
exceptional leadership qualities, who always maintained healthy interpersonal
relationship. I have learned a lot from her.
15. What motivates you to work in the nursing
field?
This question is really a huge opportunity; grasp it by
highlighting your positive features rather than giving vague answers. You can
also illustrate your real life experiences.
Sample Answer: Critical situations and tough patients
motivate me. In my last job, I was confronted with a patient, who was not
handled by a number of nurses, later I took charge of him and solved his
problem by understanding his situation. I really love to overcome challenges.
16. What is your greatest failure?
It would be better for you to avoid the real truth. Don’t
mention your major failure. The interviewer wants to bring out your flaws and
measures you have taken to overcome them. You can explain one of your bad
experiences with tangible examples and reveal what you have learnt from them.
Sample Answer: In my first job, I made a mistake
in the patient’s chart. Fortunately, my supervisor noticed it. Since then, I
always double- check my charts.
17. When you feel most satisfied in your
job?
Share your interests, likes and dislikes, and showcase your
determination for nursing that explains why you are right for the job.
Sample Answer: I really enjoy caring
people and helping them in coping up with their illness. I love to work with
children.
18. Describe your salary requirements?
This is a tricky question; it will reveal whether you prefer money more than nursing or vice-versa. Avoid giving exact number and re-iterate your dedication for the job.
This is a tricky question; it will reveal whether you prefer money more than nursing or vice-versa. Avoid giving exact number and re-iterate your dedication for the job.
Sample Answer: I am expecting an appropriate
salary for this role, based on my work knowledge and nursing experiences.
19. Do you have any questions for us?
Ask the interviewers a few questions, as they will feel happy to
answer your questions. This will also show your interest in them. Frame a good
question, like on work environment, educational opportunities or any other question regarding
nursing.
Sample Answer: Do you organize any seminars and
workshops for enhancing the knowledge and competency of a nurse?
ESIC Solved Model Question Paper for Staff Nurse Exam
1. The most common
pathogenic mechanism of acute pancreatitis is –
Auto digestion of the pancreas.
2. What does the nurse monitors for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?
Pulmonary edema and ECG changes.
3. A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is –
Syphilis.
4. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing Syndrome?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Observe for hypotension
(c) Protect from infection (d) Restrict carbohydrate intake.
Ans: Protect from infection.
5. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Vertebral Artery (c) Brain stem
(d)Right Middle Cerebral Artery.
Ans: Left Middle Cerebral Artery
Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost
Auto digestion of the pancreas.
2. What does the nurse monitors for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?
Pulmonary edema and ECG changes.
3. A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is –
Syphilis.
4. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing Syndrome?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Observe for hypotension
(c) Protect from infection (d) Restrict carbohydrate intake.
Ans: Protect from infection.
5. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Vertebral Artery (c) Brain stem
(d)Right Middle Cerebral Artery.
Ans: Left Middle Cerebral Artery
Rest of the Questions are attached in below file which is free of cost
Attached: ESIC Staff Nurse Exam Solved Model
Question Paper 1.doc (52.0 KB) ESIC Staff Nurse Exam Solved Model
Question Paper 2.doc (25.0 KB)
Can
any one here provide me the ESIC Solved Model Question Paper for Staff Nurse
Exam as it is very urgent for me?
As
you want to get the ESIC Solved Model Question Paper for Staff Nurse Exam so
here is the information of the same for you:
Some content of the file has been given here:
1. The most common pathogenic mechanism of acute pancreatitis is –
Auto digestion of the pancreas.
2. What does the nurse monitors for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?
Pulmonary edema and ECG changes.
3. A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is –
Syphilis.
4. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing Syndrome?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Observe for hypotension
(c) Protect from infection (d) Restrict carbohydrate intake.
Ans: Protect from infection.
5. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Vertebral Artery (c) Brain stem
(d)Right Middle Cerebral Artery.
Ans: Left Middle Cerebral Artery
6. Which one of the following is a common response expected in a patient with stroke, to the change in body image?
(a)Denial (b) Dis association (c) Delusion (d) Depression.
Ans: Depression.
7. A patient with early osteoporosis must be advised to-
Stop smoking
8. For doing nasotracheal suctioning, during which of the following patient activities, the catheter should be inserted?
(a)Swallowing (b) Inhaling (c) Exhaling (d) Retching
Ans: Inhaling
9. The simple most effective method for reducing the risks of stasis of pulmonary secretions is-
Two hourly position change.
10. What is cyanosis?
Blue discoloration of skin.
11. The period from conception to birth is denoted as –
Prenatal
12. Role of nursing is “having charge of somebody’s health” Whose vision is this?
Florence Nightingale
13. Which of the following developmental stage corresponds to infancy?
(A) Trust Vs Mistrust (b) Autonomy Vs Shame (c) Initiative Vs Guilt (d) Industry Vs Inferiority.
Ans: Trust Vs Mistrust
14. Who proposed the nursing theory of self-care deficit?
Dorothea orem
15. The head circumference of a normal infant is –
33-35 cm
16. The leading cause of death in adolescence is –
Accidents
17. The legal definition of ‘death’ that facilitates organ donation is, cessation of –
Function of brain
18. The body temperature at which tissues and cells can best function is –
36-38o C
19. Men have a higher Basal Metabolic Rate because, their body contains more-
Testosterone
20. The mechanism by which body loses heat to the environment, without having direct contact is --?
Radiation
21. Which of the following structures controls heat loss?
(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Posterior pituitary (c) Posterior hypothalamus (d) Anterior hypothalamus
22. Exposure of the body to subnormal temperature can lead to …
Frost-bite
23. What is the effect of an antipyretic?
Reduce fever
24. The volume of blood pumped by the heart during one minute is called….
Cardiac output
25. What is the normal pulse rate of an infant?
120-160
26. The phase of respiration in which gases move in and out of the lungs is ….
Ventilation
27. What is the normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood? (mm Hg)
35-45
28. What is the equipment that indirectly measures arterial oxygen saturation?
Pulse Oximeter
29. What is the term used to denote regular, abnormally slow respirations?
Bradypnea
30. What technique of assessment helps to determine ketoacidosis?
Olfaction
31. Inflammation of skin at base of nail is?
Paronychia
32. The condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously is known as?
Strabismus
33. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by?
Hand hygiene
34. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml.?
15
35. The prescription orders 0.125 mg digoxin orally. Tablets containing 0.25 mg is available. How many tablets will you administer?
1/2
36. A patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema and pain at the infusion site. Which of the following conditions will you suspect?
(a) Sepsis (b) Infiltration (c) Fluid overload (d) Phlebitis
Phlebitis
37. When providing oral hygiene to an unconscious patient, care must be taken to prevent?
Aspiration
38. What is the intrinsic rate of the normal A-V node?
40-60 per minute
39. Which of the following structures is the pacemaker of the heart?
(a) S-A node (b) Septum (c) A-V node (d) Bundle of His
Ans: S-A node
40. The prescription is for two tablespoons of milk of magnesia. How many ml. will you give?
30 ml
41. Which of the following is intravascular fluid?
(a) Lymph (b) Pleural fluid (c) Plasma (d) Synovial fluid
Ans: Plasma
42. If the serum potassium level is less than normal, the condition is known as –
Hypokalemia
43. What electrolyte abnormality is likely to develop in a patient with vomiting?
Hypokalemia
44. How much sodium is normally present in the extra cellular fluid? (in MEq/L).
135-145
45. What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia?
Renal failure
46. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
(a)Lactated Ringers (b) Half –Normal Saline (c) One-third Normal Saline
(d) Mannitol
Ans: Lactated Ringers
47. Thousand ml. of Normal Saline is to be infused in 8 hours. What should be the rate of flow per minute?
30 drops
48. A patient admitted with vomiting, has the following arterial blood gas levels-pH 7.30; PaCO2 36 mm Hg; Pa O2 92mm Hg; and HCO3 18; what is the acid-base imbalance that is present?
Metabolic acidosis
49. Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?
(a)Acetaminophen (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Ketamine
Ans: Acetaminophen
50. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Coryne bacterium (c) Helicobacter pylori
(d) Streptococcus.
Ans: Helicobacter pylori
51. Which of the following nutrients helps for tissue repair?
(a)Vitamin (b) Fat (c) Carbohydrate (d) Protein
Ans: Protein
52. Microscopic examination of urine reveals elevated levels of red blood cells. What does it indicate?
Damage to Glomeruli.
53. Which of the following patient activities helps to relax the external anal sphincter, while administering enema?
(a)Separating the buttocks (b) Lubricating the catheter tip
(c)Inserting the catheter slowly (d) Breathing out through the mouth.
Ans: Breathing out through the mouth.
54. What length of the catheter tip should be inserted into the rectum, for giving enema to an adult patient?
7.5-10 cm
55. The stool discharged from an ostomy is called?
Effluent
56. Which of the following is the best method to confirm placement of the nasogastric tube:
(a) Checking patient’s ability to talk (b) Aspiration of intestinal content
(c) Introducing air and auscultating (d) X-ray of chest and abdomen
Ans: X-ray of chest and abdomen
57. Which of the following is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension in a bedridden Patient?
(a)Increased autonomic response (b) Decreased circulating blood volume
(c) Increased cardiac output (d) Decreased blood pooling
Ans: Decreased circulating blood volume.
58. Which of the following body parts has a condyloid joint?
(a) Shoulder (b) Elbow (c) Wrist (d) Forearm
Ans: Wrist
59. Who was the first president of the International Council of Nurses?
Fenwick
60. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from rickets?
(a)Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Sodium (d) Iron
Ans: Calcium
61. Who introduced antiseptic spray during surgery?
Joseph Lister
62. A large infection made up of several boils is known as :
Carbuncle
63. Which of the following drugs will be administered to treat anaphylaxis?
(a) Atropine (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Digoxin (d) Epinephrine
Ans: Epinephrine
64. Which of the following is a vesicant drug?
(a)Dactinomycin (b) Morphine (c) Azithrocin (d) Voveran
Ans: Dactinomycin
65. Pain caused by damage to somatic tissue is known as –
Nociceptive
66. Which of the following immunoglobulin are responsible for anaphylactic reactions?
(a) IgA (b) IgE (c) IgM (d) IgG
Ans: IgE
67. The separation and disruption of previously joined wound edges is termed as?
Dehiscence
68. What types of dressing is Duoderm?
Hydrocolloid.
69. The role of the complement system in opsonization affects which response of the inflammatory process?
Cellular.
70. Contractures frequently occur after burn healing because of ….?
Excess fibrous tissue formation.
71. Association between HLA antigens and diseases is most commonly found in what disease conditions?
Autoimmune diseases.
72. What is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies?
Drugs
73. If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the following drugs would most likely to be used?
(a)Tacrolimus (b) Cyclosporine (c) Cellcept (d) Daclizumab.
Ans: Daclizumab.
74. The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasm is the ….
Characteristic of tissue invasiveness.
75. If the blood plasma has a higher osmolality than the fluid within a red blood cell, the mechanism involved in equalizing the fluid concentration is?
Osmosis.
76. Which of the following symptoms should be watched for in a patient receiving a loop diuretic?
(a)Restlessness and agitation (b) Paresthesias. (c)Increased blood pressure
(d)Weak irregular pulse.
Ans: Weak irregular pulse.
77. Which of the following should be watched for in a patient who has just undergone a total thyroidectomy?
(a)Weight gain (b) Depressed reflexes (c) Positive chvostek sign (d) Personality changes.
Ans: Positive chvostek sign
78. Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?
(a) Tracheostomy (b) Laparotomy (c) Mammoplasty (d) Mastectomy.
Ans: Mastectomy.
79. The cause of arcus senilis is?
Cholesterol deposits.
80. What is the cause of presbyopia?
Inflexible lens.
81. The most appropriate technique to assess skin for temperature and moisture is ….
Palpation
82. Complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas on a patient’s hand is described as …..
Vitiligo
83. What instruction will you give to a patient after a chemical peel?
Avoid sun exposure
84. Childhood atopic dermatitis is commonly seen in which body area?
Antecubital space.
85. Which of the following parameters is commonly used to assess adequacy of fluid replacement in a patient with burns?
Urine output.
86. Which of the following is an earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation?
(a) Diaphoresis (b) Cyanosis (c) Restlessness (d) Hypotension
Ans: Restlessness
87. A diagnostic procedure which involves removal of pleural fluid for analysis is :
Thoracentesis.
88. Which of the following helps to identify flail chest in a patient with chest trauma:
(a)Multiple rib fractures seen in X-ray. (b)Decreased movement of chest wall
(c)Tracheal deviation (d) Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.
Ans: Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.
89. Which of the following is an intervention for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
(a) Pursed-lip breathing (b) Chronic steroid therapy (c) High flow oxygen
(d)High Carbohydrate diet
Ans: Pursed-lip breathing
90. Which of the following is a normal finding obtained during a lymph node palpation?
(a) Hard, fixed node (b) Firm, mobile node (c) Enlarged tender nodes
(d)Hard, nontender nodes
Ans: Firm, mobile node
91. Which is the most common type of leukemia seen in older adults?
Chronic lymphocytic.
92. The blood vessel that brings blood to the right atrium is ….
Inferior Venae Cavae
93. Which of the following conditions is caused by elevated intra ocular pressure?
(a)Glaucoma (b) Cataract (c) Strabismus (d) Myopia.
Ans: Glaucoma.
94. Which of the following is the most common pathologic finding in individuals at risk for sudden cardiac death?
(a)Aortic valve disease (b) Mitral valve disease
(c) Left ventricular dysfunction (d) Atherosclerotic heart disease
Ans: Atherosclerotic heart disease
95. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of fibrinolytic therapy?
(a) Current use of anticoagulants (b) Severe liver disease
(c) Suspected aortic dissection (d) Active peptic ulcer disease
Ans: Suspected aortic dissection
96. Which of the following drugs provide relief of anxiety and decreases both preload and after load?
(a) Amrinone (b) Morphine sulphate (c) Furosemide
(d)Dobutamine
Ans: Morphine sulphate
97. In a normal sinus rhythm, the measurement of an S.T.segment is …..?
0.12 seconds
98. The ECG monitor of a patient admitted with myocardial infarction shows ventricular bigeminy. What is the nurse’s responsibility in this situation?
Assess the patient’s response
99. What is the usual treatment of Rayanaud’s Phenomenon?
Calcium Channel blockers.
100. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of diarrhea with dehydration. What could be the cause of increased peristalsis resulting in diarrhea?
Parasympathetic stimulation.
* When caring for a client with continuous bladder irrigation, the nurse should,
a) Record output every hour
b) Monitor urinary speific gravity
c) Subtract irrigant from output to determine urine volume
d) Include irrigating solution in any 24 hour urine tests order
* The nurse can prevent the contamination from Mrs. Jacinta's retention catheter by:
a) Irrigating the catheter
b) Perineal cleansing
c) Encouraging fluids
d) Cleansing around the meatus periodically
* The major reasons for treating severe emotional disorders with tranquilizers is to;
a) Reduce the neurotic syndrome
b) Prevent secondary complication
c) Make the client amenable to physiotherapy
d) Prevent destructiveness by the client
* The most important factor in rehabilitation of a client addicted to alcohol is;
a) The Clients emotional or motivational readiness
b) The availability of community resources
c) The qualitative level of the clients physical state
d) The accepting attitude of client's family
* Which of the following activities would cause her a risk in the increase of intracranial pressure?
a) Exercise
b) Coughing
c) Turning
d) Sleeping
* Which of the following drug may be given to reduce increase intracranial pressure?
a) Mannitol
b) Scopalamine
c) Lanoxin
d) Calmpose
* Which of the following is a form of active, focused, emotional environmental first aid for patients in crisis?
a) Attitude therapy
b) Psychotherapy
c) Re motivation technique
d) Crisis intervention
* The major treatment for ascities calls for;
a) Increased potassium
b) High protein
c) Restricted fluids
d) Restricted sodium
* The major influence of eating habits of the early school-aged child is;
a)Spoon feeding
b) Availability of food selections
c) Smell and appearance of food
d) Example of parents at meal time
Some content of the file has been given here:
1. The most common pathogenic mechanism of acute pancreatitis is –
Auto digestion of the pancreas.
2. What does the nurse monitors for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?
Pulmonary edema and ECG changes.
3. A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is –
Syphilis.
4. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing Syndrome?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Observe for hypotension
(c) Protect from infection (d) Restrict carbohydrate intake.
Ans: Protect from infection.
5. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Vertebral Artery (c) Brain stem
(d)Right Middle Cerebral Artery.
Ans: Left Middle Cerebral Artery
6. Which one of the following is a common response expected in a patient with stroke, to the change in body image?
(a)Denial (b) Dis association (c) Delusion (d) Depression.
Ans: Depression.
7. A patient with early osteoporosis must be advised to-
Stop smoking
8. For doing nasotracheal suctioning, during which of the following patient activities, the catheter should be inserted?
(a)Swallowing (b) Inhaling (c) Exhaling (d) Retching
Ans: Inhaling
9. The simple most effective method for reducing the risks of stasis of pulmonary secretions is-
Two hourly position change.
10. What is cyanosis?
Blue discoloration of skin.
11. The period from conception to birth is denoted as –
Prenatal
12. Role of nursing is “having charge of somebody’s health” Whose vision is this?
Florence Nightingale
13. Which of the following developmental stage corresponds to infancy?
(A) Trust Vs Mistrust (b) Autonomy Vs Shame (c) Initiative Vs Guilt (d) Industry Vs Inferiority.
Ans: Trust Vs Mistrust
14. Who proposed the nursing theory of self-care deficit?
Dorothea orem
15. The head circumference of a normal infant is –
33-35 cm
16. The leading cause of death in adolescence is –
Accidents
17. The legal definition of ‘death’ that facilitates organ donation is, cessation of –
Function of brain
18. The body temperature at which tissues and cells can best function is –
36-38o C
19. Men have a higher Basal Metabolic Rate because, their body contains more-
Testosterone
20. The mechanism by which body loses heat to the environment, without having direct contact is --?
Radiation
21. Which of the following structures controls heat loss?
(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Posterior pituitary (c) Posterior hypothalamus (d) Anterior hypothalamus
22. Exposure of the body to subnormal temperature can lead to …
Frost-bite
23. What is the effect of an antipyretic?
Reduce fever
24. The volume of blood pumped by the heart during one minute is called….
Cardiac output
25. What is the normal pulse rate of an infant?
120-160
26. The phase of respiration in which gases move in and out of the lungs is ….
Ventilation
27. What is the normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood? (mm Hg)
35-45
28. What is the equipment that indirectly measures arterial oxygen saturation?
Pulse Oximeter
29. What is the term used to denote regular, abnormally slow respirations?
Bradypnea
30. What technique of assessment helps to determine ketoacidosis?
Olfaction
31. Inflammation of skin at base of nail is?
Paronychia
32. The condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously is known as?
Strabismus
33. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by?
Hand hygiene
34. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml.?
15
35. The prescription orders 0.125 mg digoxin orally. Tablets containing 0.25 mg is available. How many tablets will you administer?
1/2
36. A patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema and pain at the infusion site. Which of the following conditions will you suspect?
(a) Sepsis (b) Infiltration (c) Fluid overload (d) Phlebitis
Phlebitis
37. When providing oral hygiene to an unconscious patient, care must be taken to prevent?
Aspiration
38. What is the intrinsic rate of the normal A-V node?
40-60 per minute
39. Which of the following structures is the pacemaker of the heart?
(a) S-A node (b) Septum (c) A-V node (d) Bundle of His
Ans: S-A node
40. The prescription is for two tablespoons of milk of magnesia. How many ml. will you give?
30 ml
41. Which of the following is intravascular fluid?
(a) Lymph (b) Pleural fluid (c) Plasma (d) Synovial fluid
Ans: Plasma
42. If the serum potassium level is less than normal, the condition is known as –
Hypokalemia
43. What electrolyte abnormality is likely to develop in a patient with vomiting?
Hypokalemia
44. How much sodium is normally present in the extra cellular fluid? (in MEq/L).
135-145
45. What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia?
Renal failure
46. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
(a)Lactated Ringers (b) Half –Normal Saline (c) One-third Normal Saline
(d) Mannitol
Ans: Lactated Ringers
47. Thousand ml. of Normal Saline is to be infused in 8 hours. What should be the rate of flow per minute?
30 drops
48. A patient admitted with vomiting, has the following arterial blood gas levels-pH 7.30; PaCO2 36 mm Hg; Pa O2 92mm Hg; and HCO3 18; what is the acid-base imbalance that is present?
Metabolic acidosis
49. Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?
(a)Acetaminophen (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Ketamine
Ans: Acetaminophen
50. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Coryne bacterium (c) Helicobacter pylori
(d) Streptococcus.
Ans: Helicobacter pylori
51. Which of the following nutrients helps for tissue repair?
(a)Vitamin (b) Fat (c) Carbohydrate (d) Protein
Ans: Protein
52. Microscopic examination of urine reveals elevated levels of red blood cells. What does it indicate?
Damage to Glomeruli.
53. Which of the following patient activities helps to relax the external anal sphincter, while administering enema?
(a)Separating the buttocks (b) Lubricating the catheter tip
(c)Inserting the catheter slowly (d) Breathing out through the mouth.
Ans: Breathing out through the mouth.
54. What length of the catheter tip should be inserted into the rectum, for giving enema to an adult patient?
7.5-10 cm
55. The stool discharged from an ostomy is called?
Effluent
56. Which of the following is the best method to confirm placement of the nasogastric tube:
(a) Checking patient’s ability to talk (b) Aspiration of intestinal content
(c) Introducing air and auscultating (d) X-ray of chest and abdomen
Ans: X-ray of chest and abdomen
57. Which of the following is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension in a bedridden Patient?
(a)Increased autonomic response (b) Decreased circulating blood volume
(c) Increased cardiac output (d) Decreased blood pooling
Ans: Decreased circulating blood volume.
58. Which of the following body parts has a condyloid joint?
(a) Shoulder (b) Elbow (c) Wrist (d) Forearm
Ans: Wrist
59. Who was the first president of the International Council of Nurses?
Fenwick
60. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from rickets?
(a)Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Sodium (d) Iron
Ans: Calcium
61. Who introduced antiseptic spray during surgery?
Joseph Lister
62. A large infection made up of several boils is known as :
Carbuncle
63. Which of the following drugs will be administered to treat anaphylaxis?
(a) Atropine (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Digoxin (d) Epinephrine
Ans: Epinephrine
64. Which of the following is a vesicant drug?
(a)Dactinomycin (b) Morphine (c) Azithrocin (d) Voveran
Ans: Dactinomycin
65. Pain caused by damage to somatic tissue is known as –
Nociceptive
66. Which of the following immunoglobulin are responsible for anaphylactic reactions?
(a) IgA (b) IgE (c) IgM (d) IgG
Ans: IgE
67. The separation and disruption of previously joined wound edges is termed as?
Dehiscence
68. What types of dressing is Duoderm?
Hydrocolloid.
69. The role of the complement system in opsonization affects which response of the inflammatory process?
Cellular.
70. Contractures frequently occur after burn healing because of ….?
Excess fibrous tissue formation.
71. Association between HLA antigens and diseases is most commonly found in what disease conditions?
Autoimmune diseases.
72. What is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies?
Drugs
73. If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the following drugs would most likely to be used?
(a)Tacrolimus (b) Cyclosporine (c) Cellcept (d) Daclizumab.
Ans: Daclizumab.
74. The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasm is the ….
Characteristic of tissue invasiveness.
75. If the blood plasma has a higher osmolality than the fluid within a red blood cell, the mechanism involved in equalizing the fluid concentration is?
Osmosis.
76. Which of the following symptoms should be watched for in a patient receiving a loop diuretic?
(a)Restlessness and agitation (b) Paresthesias. (c)Increased blood pressure
(d)Weak irregular pulse.
Ans: Weak irregular pulse.
77. Which of the following should be watched for in a patient who has just undergone a total thyroidectomy?
(a)Weight gain (b) Depressed reflexes (c) Positive chvostek sign (d) Personality changes.
Ans: Positive chvostek sign
78. Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?
(a) Tracheostomy (b) Laparotomy (c) Mammoplasty (d) Mastectomy.
Ans: Mastectomy.
79. The cause of arcus senilis is?
Cholesterol deposits.
80. What is the cause of presbyopia?
Inflexible lens.
81. The most appropriate technique to assess skin for temperature and moisture is ….
Palpation
82. Complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas on a patient’s hand is described as …..
Vitiligo
83. What instruction will you give to a patient after a chemical peel?
Avoid sun exposure
84. Childhood atopic dermatitis is commonly seen in which body area?
Antecubital space.
85. Which of the following parameters is commonly used to assess adequacy of fluid replacement in a patient with burns?
Urine output.
86. Which of the following is an earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation?
(a) Diaphoresis (b) Cyanosis (c) Restlessness (d) Hypotension
Ans: Restlessness
87. A diagnostic procedure which involves removal of pleural fluid for analysis is :
Thoracentesis.
88. Which of the following helps to identify flail chest in a patient with chest trauma:
(a)Multiple rib fractures seen in X-ray. (b)Decreased movement of chest wall
(c)Tracheal deviation (d) Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.
Ans: Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.
89. Which of the following is an intervention for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
(a) Pursed-lip breathing (b) Chronic steroid therapy (c) High flow oxygen
(d)High Carbohydrate diet
Ans: Pursed-lip breathing
90. Which of the following is a normal finding obtained during a lymph node palpation?
(a) Hard, fixed node (b) Firm, mobile node (c) Enlarged tender nodes
(d)Hard, nontender nodes
Ans: Firm, mobile node
91. Which is the most common type of leukemia seen in older adults?
Chronic lymphocytic.
92. The blood vessel that brings blood to the right atrium is ….
Inferior Venae Cavae
93. Which of the following conditions is caused by elevated intra ocular pressure?
(a)Glaucoma (b) Cataract (c) Strabismus (d) Myopia.
Ans: Glaucoma.
94. Which of the following is the most common pathologic finding in individuals at risk for sudden cardiac death?
(a)Aortic valve disease (b) Mitral valve disease
(c) Left ventricular dysfunction (d) Atherosclerotic heart disease
Ans: Atherosclerotic heart disease
95. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of fibrinolytic therapy?
(a) Current use of anticoagulants (b) Severe liver disease
(c) Suspected aortic dissection (d) Active peptic ulcer disease
Ans: Suspected aortic dissection
96. Which of the following drugs provide relief of anxiety and decreases both preload and after load?
(a) Amrinone (b) Morphine sulphate (c) Furosemide
(d)Dobutamine
Ans: Morphine sulphate
97. In a normal sinus rhythm, the measurement of an S.T.segment is …..?
0.12 seconds
98. The ECG monitor of a patient admitted with myocardial infarction shows ventricular bigeminy. What is the nurse’s responsibility in this situation?
Assess the patient’s response
99. What is the usual treatment of Rayanaud’s Phenomenon?
Calcium Channel blockers.
100. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of diarrhea with dehydration. What could be the cause of increased peristalsis resulting in diarrhea?
Parasympathetic stimulation.
* When caring for a client with continuous bladder irrigation, the nurse should,
a) Record output every hour
b) Monitor urinary speific gravity
c) Subtract irrigant from output to determine urine volume
d) Include irrigating solution in any 24 hour urine tests order
* The nurse can prevent the contamination from Mrs. Jacinta's retention catheter by:
a) Irrigating the catheter
b) Perineal cleansing
c) Encouraging fluids
d) Cleansing around the meatus periodically
* The major reasons for treating severe emotional disorders with tranquilizers is to;
a) Reduce the neurotic syndrome
b) Prevent secondary complication
c) Make the client amenable to physiotherapy
d) Prevent destructiveness by the client
* The most important factor in rehabilitation of a client addicted to alcohol is;
a) The Clients emotional or motivational readiness
b) The availability of community resources
c) The qualitative level of the clients physical state
d) The accepting attitude of client's family
* Which of the following activities would cause her a risk in the increase of intracranial pressure?
a) Exercise
b) Coughing
c) Turning
d) Sleeping
* Which of the following drug may be given to reduce increase intracranial pressure?
a) Mannitol
b) Scopalamine
c) Lanoxin
d) Calmpose
* Which of the following is a form of active, focused, emotional environmental first aid for patients in crisis?
a) Attitude therapy
b) Psychotherapy
c) Re motivation technique
d) Crisis intervention
* The major treatment for ascities calls for;
a) Increased potassium
b) High protein
c) Restricted fluids
d) Restricted sodium
* The major influence of eating habits of the early school-aged child is;
a)Spoon feeding
b) Availability of food selections
c) Smell and appearance of food
d) Example of parents at meal time
Types of question papers for ESIC exam
NURSE INTERVIEW QUESTION PART 3
1.
Question:
How would you describe the primary duties of a staff nurse?
Answer: The primary duties of a staff nurse include facilitating and monitoring patient progress towards recovery, charting progress, giving medication, and making sure patients are comfortable.
Answer: The primary duties of a staff nurse include facilitating and monitoring patient progress towards recovery, charting progress, giving medication, and making sure patients are comfortable.
2. Question: What can you tell me about
team work as part of the job?
Answer: There is usually a team of staff nurses working in cooperation with each other. . A team of nurses has to get along well and coordinate their actions, usually by dividing their responsibilities into sectors or specific activities. They help each other perform tasks requiring more than one person.
Answer: There is usually a team of staff nurses working in cooperation with each other. . A team of nurses has to get along well and coordinate their actions, usually by dividing their responsibilities into sectors or specific activities. They help each other perform tasks requiring more than one person.
3. Question: How is patient progress
monitored by a staff nurse?
Answer: Nurses monitor vital signs and look for symptoms of potential illness. They chart progress for use by other nurses and physicians. They report progress to physicians on duty.
Answer: Nurses monitor vital signs and look for symptoms of potential illness. They chart progress for use by other nurses and physicians. They report progress to physicians on duty.
4. Question: In what cases does a staff
nurse contact the patient’s family members?
Answer: Family members are contacted during emergencies. At other times, family members are informed on the patient’s progress. Nurses consult with the family to decide on the best course of treatment for the patient.
Answer: Family members are contacted during emergencies. At other times, family members are informed on the patient’s progress. Nurses consult with the family to decide on the best course of treatment for the patient.
5. Question: What personal characteristics
should a staff nurse possess to be good at the job?
Answer: It is important to be organized and have a good memory; a nurse performs her duties quickly, on time, and efficiently. Nurses are sensitive and pleasant with others. Their attitude must not be to simply administer technical treatment mechanically, but to make patients feel as comfortable as possible.
Answer: It is important to be organized and have a good memory; a nurse performs her duties quickly, on time, and efficiently. Nurses are sensitive and pleasant with others. Their attitude must not be to simply administer technical treatment mechanically, but to make patients feel as comfortable as possible.
6.
What
do you consider the most important qualities for this nursing job?
Make your answer
relevant to the specific nursing job. For example common qualities required for
successful performance as an ER Nurse include adaptability, resilience,
critical thinking, organization and planning, emotional stability and high
stress tolerance.
7. What did you like and dislike about your
previous position?
The interviewer
is evaluating your suitability and compatibility with this nursing opportunity.
General likes that are applicable to most nursing jobs include learning
opportunities, professional growth, job diversity and directly contributing to
improving patient care.
The dislikes
should not refer to characteristics of the nurse job you are interviewing for.
Stay away from reasons that involve common working conditions such as overtime.
Avoid criticisms of your previous employer but refer to the absence of
something that you want in your new job such as the opportunity to use your
initiative more or learn new skills.
Expect nurse
interview questions that explore your motivation for the nursing job and a
nursing career.
8. Why did you choose your specialty area
of nursing?
Whether the area
of specialization is ER, Occupational Health, Community Health, ICU or any
other, the key to answering interview questions about your nursing career
choice is to be very specific about why you chose it. What influenced you in
your choice? How did you explore your options? Highlight how your strengths are
best utilized in this area and how it suits your personal competencies.
10. How do you stay current with the nursing
profession?
Nurse interview
questions about your motivation to learn and stay updated are important
indicators of your commitment to nursing as a career. Examples include
attending conferences, subscribing to professional nursing journals, joining
relevant forums and groups and conducting online research.
11. Instead of giving a chronological
work history, focus on your strengths and how they pertain to the role. If
possible, illustrate with examples.
Good answer:
“I’m really energetic, and a great communicator. Working in the medical field for two years helped me build confidence, and taught me the importance of patient care. I’ve also got a track record of success. In my last role, I juggled a variety of patient loads, assisted in a charity fundraiser, and became an advocate for senior patients. Because of this, the hospital is launching a new educational program to teach nurses how to better care for elderly patients.”
Good answer:
“I’m really energetic, and a great communicator. Working in the medical field for two years helped me build confidence, and taught me the importance of patient care. I’ve also got a track record of success. In my last role, I juggled a variety of patient loads, assisted in a charity fundraiser, and became an advocate for senior patients. Because of this, the hospital is launching a new educational program to teach nurses how to better care for elderly patients.”
12.
Why are you leaving
your current role?
“I’ve learned a lot from my current role, but now I’m looking for a new challenge in nursing, to broaden my horizons and to gain a new skill-set – all of which, I see the potential for in this job.”
Below is a list
of frequently asked nursing management interview questions; review it and
prepare your own answers:
- How do you motivate your
nursing staff?
- How do you mentor nurses and
how much autonomy do you give nurses vis-a-vis making decisions regarding
patient care?
- Give an example of a change
you made in your nursing practice that improved the quality of care you
were able to provide or to ensure safer working conditions.
- What are nurses’ biggest
challenges?
- What are your plans for
future growth?
Answering
these questions –
The interviewer wants to learn about your management style, approach and attitude.
You will increase your chances of getting hired if you can demonstrate your abilities to assess and monitor patients’ needs, while caring for them professionally. If you are aiming for a supervisory position, be prepared to give examples of your leadership abilities as demonstrated in past work situations.
The best way to answer these questions is by providing examples of your day to day work as well as telling about your significant achievements as a nurse manger.
The interviewer wants to learn about your management style, approach and attitude.
You will increase your chances of getting hired if you can demonstrate your abilities to assess and monitor patients’ needs, while caring for them professionally. If you are aiming for a supervisory position, be prepared to give examples of your leadership abilities as demonstrated in past work situations.
The best way to answer these questions is by providing examples of your day to day work as well as telling about your significant achievements as a nurse manger.
18. Q: What made you choose nursing as a
career?
A: I have always wanted to make a difference in other people’s lives. I see the nursing field as a challenging and exciting opportunity to do just that!
A: I have always wanted to make a difference in other people’s lives. I see the nursing field as a challenging and exciting opportunity to do just that!
19. Q: How have your clinical rotations
prepared you for a nursing career?
A: At Medical Careers Institute, I experienced an internship at [insert company here], which gave me the hands-on experience with patients I need in order to make a difference on day one of my new career.
A: At Medical Careers Institute, I experienced an internship at [insert company here], which gave me the hands-on experience with patients I need in order to make a difference on day one of my new career.
20. Q: Do you have any professional
affiliations?
A: Absolutely, I feel it's important to stay informed about trends and news in the nursing profession. I'm a member of the [insert association here], and the [insert association here].
A: Absolutely, I feel it's important to stay informed about trends and news in the nursing profession. I'm a member of the [insert association here], and the [insert association here].
21. Q: How would you deal with a doctor who was
rude?
A: If the doctor was not happy with my care of a patient in some way, I would want to know how, so I could take corrective action to remedy the situation. If I needed to, I would even bring the question to my supervisor for help resolving the issue.
A: If the doctor was not happy with my care of a patient in some way, I would want to know how, so I could take corrective action to remedy the situation. If I needed to, I would even bring the question to my supervisor for help resolving the issue.
22. Q: How would you handle a patient who
constantly complains about pain?
A: In this situation I would take the following course of action: A) I would bring this concern to the attending doctor and make sure that the patient's pain was being managed in the most effective way. B) I would reassure the patient that everything possible was being done to alleviate their discomfort and C) I would listen sympathetically to their complaint, reassure them that their concerns were being heard, and that we were doing everything possible to help them.
A: In this situation I would take the following course of action: A) I would bring this concern to the attending doctor and make sure that the patient's pain was being managed in the most effective way. B) I would reassure the patient that everything possible was being done to alleviate their discomfort and C) I would listen sympathetically to their complaint, reassure them that their concerns were being heard, and that we were doing everything possible to help them.
23. Q: What would you do if your shift
replacement did not arrive on time or at all?
A: I would notify my shift supervisor and offer to stay until my replacement arrived.
A: I would notify my shift supervisor and offer to stay until my replacement arrived.
24. Q: What do you find most difficult about
being a nurse?
A: I think for me, the most difficult part of being a nurse, is when I have a patient that is very uncomfortable, or in a lot of pain, and I cannot comfort them.
A: I think for me, the most difficult part of being a nurse, is when I have a patient that is very uncomfortable, or in a lot of pain, and I cannot comfort them.
25. Q: How would you handle a family who is
displeased with your patient's care?
A: I would listen to all of their concerns and make sure that if any were well founded, that they were addressed immediately.
A: I would listen to all of their concerns and make sure that if any were well founded, that they were addressed immediately.
26. Q: How would you handle a patient who
complains about everything?
A: I would first ensure that the patient had no valid complaints, and then just be patient and reassuring that we were doing everything we could for them.
A: I would first ensure that the patient had no valid complaints, and then just be patient and reassuring that we were doing everything we could for them.
27. What’s your greatest weakness?
If asked to name a weakness, think in
terms of having a ‘developmental need’ that you are addressing. ‘For example,
if delegation is an issue, describe how you have already made improvements and
how you feel the period of mentor ship offered by the new role will further
develop your confidence,’ says Cathy.
28. What do you understand by the term ‘diversity at work’?
Sometimes, it’s the simple-sounding
questions that trip up candidates. If you’re asked about your understanding of
diversity at work, the interviewer is looking for more than just “treating
everybody in the same way.”
29.
‘The
importance with these kinds of questions is to focus on the positive,’ says
Cathy. ‘Take an example from your current or a previous role, and focus on what
you learnt from the experience and how you would do things differently now.’
30.
For
example: “When I started out as a staff nurse, I
didn’t fully appreciate the importance of advocating for the patient. One day,
a junior doctor was struggling to find a vein when taking blood from a patient.
Eventually a more senior doctor was called. I could see that if the junior
doctor had used a pillow to support the patient’s arm, he would have found it
much easier. If the same thing happened now, I would have the confidence to
halt the procedure and take the doctor to one side to share the benefit of my training and experience – and so save the patient any
more distress.”
31. How do you explain your gap in employment?
Hiring managers are trained to spot
inconsistencies and gaps on your CV. Don’t leave employers guessing. If you
haven’t worked for a period of several months include a line to explain what
you were doing, for example “full-time carer to my mother” or “extended period
of maternity leave.”
32.
‘You
should be prepared to talk about any gaps in employment, and indeed any other
issues an employer might pick up on from your CV, such as only staying in a
post for a short time,’ warns Cathy.
‘If you’ve been job hunting for a while,
you should make it clear that this has been your decision, rather than an
inability to find work. For example, you might say: “My work is very important
to me. I don’t want to take any nursing job, I’m looking for a position where I
can use the skills and experience I have gained and continue to develop in the
future.”
Operating Room Nurse Interview Questions and Answers
ENJOY YOUR INTERVIEW
·
What do you find most challenging while working as a nurse in an
operating room environment? How do you manage the tension?
Nursing is a challenge on the whole. There is so much at stake when you are working as an RN. However, working as one in an operating room environment is especially challenging because of the tense atmosphere that ORs carry. Over the years, I have learnt to manage my stress by disassociating myself emotionally. When one is not emotionally involved in a situation, things become easier to manage.
Nursing is a challenge on the whole. There is so much at stake when you are working as an RN. However, working as one in an operating room environment is especially challenging because of the tense atmosphere that ORs carry. Over the years, I have learnt to manage my stress by disassociating myself emotionally. When one is not emotionally involved in a situation, things become easier to manage.
ΓΌ What skills do you have that make you a
good RN to work with in an OR?
I am a very professional individual. And I can go from being businesslike to compassionate within a second, depending on the situation. This makes it easy for surgical teams to work with me. And patients love it! I have demonstrated expertise in creating and implementing core nursing care plans – both pre and postoperative. I can develop educational materials to assist patients and their families understand what to expect before and after surgeries. And my meticulousness while preparing surgical rooms is quite widely talked about!
I am a very professional individual. And I can go from being businesslike to compassionate within a second, depending on the situation. This makes it easy for surgical teams to work with me. And patients love it! I have demonstrated expertise in creating and implementing core nursing care plans – both pre and postoperative. I can develop educational materials to assist patients and their families understand what to expect before and after surgeries. And my meticulousness while preparing surgical rooms is quite widely talked about!
o
As far as nursing intervention is concerned, what do you know
about working as an OR RN?
Right before an operation, an OR nurse has to remain at the patient’s bedsides to comfort him or her. Positioning patients so that they can be operated on properly, providing support in administering anesthesia and monitoring patients throughout the surgical procedure, are all part of a nurse’s work in the operating room.
Right before an operation, an OR nurse has to remain at the patient’s bedsides to comfort him or her. Positioning patients so that they can be operated on properly, providing support in administering anesthesia and monitoring patients throughout the surgical procedure, are all part of a nurse’s work in the operating room.
What duties does an operating room nurse perform after a surgery
has been completed?As soon as an operative procedure is completed, it is the job of the nurse to check and record vitals, arrange for orderly and safe transition to recovery rooms, and evaluate patients’ response to the surgical interventions.
§ How would you react if you discovered
that the patient who is being operated on isn’t completely unconscious?
I would calmly but promptly make the anesthesiologist aware of the problem and provide immediate assistance to do the needful.
I would calmly but promptly make the anesthesiologist aware of the problem and provide immediate assistance to do the needful.
§ If you found out that one person from
the surgical team is involved in nefarious activities, what would be your
response?
While it is not my place to hold anyone accountable directly, I will make sure that the right person knows what is going on. Hospitals, particularly operating rooms are sensitive places and cannot allow nefarious activities to take place.
While it is not my place to hold anyone accountable directly, I will make sure that the right person knows what is going on. Hospitals, particularly operating rooms are sensitive places and cannot allow nefarious activities to take place.
- How has your experience
prepared you for this role?
In what types of operations do you have experience as a preoperative
nurse?
- Give me an example of a break
in the sterile technique
What’s a “time out”?
What are the legal aspects of a preoperative nurse’s role?
§
Can you explain the
use of a surgical safety checklist?
Why is surgical skin preparation important and how would you do
it?
- Tell
me about a time a patient was anxious or panicked before surgery. What
steps did you take to calm them?
Describe a time you spotted an inefficiency of the operating
room. What was it and what did you do to fix it?
- Recall
a time you had a conflict with a surgeon or nurse. How did you resolve it?
Tell me about the biggest challenge you’ve faced in the past as
a nurse
§ How would you know you were successful
on this Operating room nurse job?
There are
several ways to assess: You set big challenges for yourself and met them. Your
achievement is a big success. Your boss told you that you were successful.
I am sure that I
was successful. I have dreamt to work for your company and I can do anything to
make my dream become true. And I am really interested in this job, for my
passion not for money.
. What experience do you have in this field and Operating room
nurse position?
• Speak about specific matters that are
relevant to the position you are applying for. If you do not have any specific
experience, get them as close as you can.
• If you are being asked this question
from your employer, you can explain about your experience. Tell the employer
what responsibilities you were performing in your previous job. You can tell
about the programs you have developed and modules you have worked on. You can
also tell about your achievements in different programs.
. What have you done to improve your knowledge that related to
Operating room nurse position since the last year?
• Try to include improvements that are
relevant to the job. A wide variety of activities can be mentioned as positive
self-improvement. Have some good ones in handy to mention in this circumstance.
• Employers tend to look for
goal-oriented applicants. Show a desire for continuous learning by listing your
non-work related hobbies. Regardless of what hobbies you choose to present,
remember that the goal is to prove self-sufficiency, time management, and
motivation.
• Everyone should learn from his
mistake. I always try to consult my mistakes with my friends and relatives,
especially with elder and experienced persons.
. What kind of salary do you need?
A loaded question. This is a nasty
little game that you will probably lose if you answer first. So, do not answer
it. Instead, say something like, That’s a tough question. Can you tell me the
range for this position?
In most cases, the interviewer, taken
off guard, will tell you. If not, say that it can depend on the details of the
job. Then give a wide range.
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